N
noise
Guest
My wife and I were discussing a certain person we're both slightly aquainted with and the topic turned to death and is it time wasting. We all mourn the loss of a loved one, be it a pet, a husband etc.. Now in dealing with reality I think a person would be rather devistated by the loss of a loved one.
So my question is, and I know no true measurement can be had, but what is an acceptable time of mourning? I know the question is kind of loaded where one could imply a week or a day or what not.
The question stems from on one hand things are as they are. On the other hand some people become truly devistated to such extreme's it can be said people have died from a broken heart.
I might be having some misperceptions in this area so I thought I'd ask. My wife and I think we have identified what, based on our mutual understanding, a psychopath who is indirectly involved in our lives. Obviously we both suffer some of the traits and characteristics ourselves, like most people and have yet to completely overcome alot of the programs that we find ourselves intertwined in cause of upbringing and envronmental/social conditioning.
The thought is that a psychopath would see your cat ran over (or some similar experience) and wonder "why all the sorrow, it's just a cat (or person, or someone/thing you hold dear)." Whereas, I believe, a normal person would show empathy or maybe feel the loss/emotion similar to that of he/she who experienced the loss. I hope I was able to word this well enough to where others get a gist of the question and can add some real logic to my wife and I's perceptions.
It's hard to accept fate at times and people mourn. Is mourning kind of a waste, like a child crying for something that cannot be changed, it just is? Are tears worthy of the self suffering? In (attempting) self observation I can't seem to find the answer in myself. In one way a person certainly grieves and it is by all means healthy. I know there is no average time and some mourn more than others. Maybe there is no answer and my question is completely ignorant.
It may be that I have already come across the info I am asking for but it simply did not sink in. Certainly every situation may merit a specific reaction from a persons or a persons particular state at the time of a situation arising. Is there any general view/concensus? Is it that psychopaths have an advantage where the only thing they truly feel is the fear of being discovered and everything else to them is water under the bridge? I know there are alot of questions here but I'm basically trying to reword them so they are not so loaded, but I've not found a way to make them such.
Is it that certain traits can be beneficial, like for example: I did not mourn for 5 weeks after my dads passing (fictional example), I saw it coming, it hurt but I knew it to be inevitable? So the benefit was preparedness and the mourning was limited as it was accepted before hand. Is that a heartless scenario? There is also the possibility that a person even prepared would be totally devistated anyway, prepared or not. Maybe I've answered my own (series of) question(s).
Maybe there is no right answer either, outside of the case of the psychopath him/herself other than those who can't be seen well enough to know if they are acting or not. Hmm.. much to ponder, anyone willing to add in some of their own experience/perspectives, I/We'd, appreciate it.
So my question is, and I know no true measurement can be had, but what is an acceptable time of mourning? I know the question is kind of loaded where one could imply a week or a day or what not.
The question stems from on one hand things are as they are. On the other hand some people become truly devistated to such extreme's it can be said people have died from a broken heart.
I might be having some misperceptions in this area so I thought I'd ask. My wife and I think we have identified what, based on our mutual understanding, a psychopath who is indirectly involved in our lives. Obviously we both suffer some of the traits and characteristics ourselves, like most people and have yet to completely overcome alot of the programs that we find ourselves intertwined in cause of upbringing and envronmental/social conditioning.
The thought is that a psychopath would see your cat ran over (or some similar experience) and wonder "why all the sorrow, it's just a cat (or person, or someone/thing you hold dear)." Whereas, I believe, a normal person would show empathy or maybe feel the loss/emotion similar to that of he/she who experienced the loss. I hope I was able to word this well enough to where others get a gist of the question and can add some real logic to my wife and I's perceptions.
It's hard to accept fate at times and people mourn. Is mourning kind of a waste, like a child crying for something that cannot be changed, it just is? Are tears worthy of the self suffering? In (attempting) self observation I can't seem to find the answer in myself. In one way a person certainly grieves and it is by all means healthy. I know there is no average time and some mourn more than others. Maybe there is no answer and my question is completely ignorant.
It may be that I have already come across the info I am asking for but it simply did not sink in. Certainly every situation may merit a specific reaction from a persons or a persons particular state at the time of a situation arising. Is there any general view/concensus? Is it that psychopaths have an advantage where the only thing they truly feel is the fear of being discovered and everything else to them is water under the bridge? I know there are alot of questions here but I'm basically trying to reword them so they are not so loaded, but I've not found a way to make them such.
Is it that certain traits can be beneficial, like for example: I did not mourn for 5 weeks after my dads passing (fictional example), I saw it coming, it hurt but I knew it to be inevitable? So the benefit was preparedness and the mourning was limited as it was accepted before hand. Is that a heartless scenario? There is also the possibility that a person even prepared would be totally devistated anyway, prepared or not. Maybe I've answered my own (series of) question(s).
Maybe there is no right answer either, outside of the case of the psychopath him/herself other than those who can't be seen well enough to know if they are acting or not. Hmm.. much to ponder, anyone willing to add in some of their own experience/perspectives, I/We'd, appreciate it.
