palestine
Jedi Master
Hello,
I have a question in mind for a while - it's about Zionism - and a very similar one for Hitler, too.
I am trying to match the model that Lobaczewski taught, in regard of the ponerization process, and leading to a pathocracy.
Basically, from what I have in mind, it starts with an ideology of some sort; such pool attracts deviants, the movement grows, we see the progressive discarding of the original guys, to finally spectate hard core psychos in charge of the whole. They would keep the original ideology's name.
But here it is: in the case of Zionism, is this model applicable? I know that Lobaczewski has room for variations of the models leading to a pathocracy. Somehow, I see Zionism as quite psychopathological enough in it's basics. This hint at a fundational presence of psychopaths.
I am asking the question to understand how I should consider today's Zionists (specifically): are those actually the hard psychos (and so there may have been "sincere Zionists" at the start)? It has been a while that those Zionists are around, so their "ideology" *should* logically have been undergoing a basic ponerization process, since the time. It's too damaging for seeing zero evolution towards psychopathy. And so, I would like to know if I have to consider Zionism as a "naïve ideology" - or if things differ. Please.
In the case of Hitler, the same question comes to my mind. Hitler, it seems, came by and remained until the end - well - he remained the guy from the start to the end, and in the end, he was segregating Jews and was very damaging. There was quite a macro scale. How to adapt Lobaczewski's model, in this case? I don't see "some guy becoming discarded along the process", and if we were to study things around an ideology - we see Hitler's ideas as being consistent from the start to the end. There is no change of power, somehow.
I am curious if we should, as well, label Hitler's peak as "pathocratic". I believe so but I am not sure.
Thank you in advance for any help on the topic!
I have a question in mind for a while - it's about Zionism - and a very similar one for Hitler, too.
I am trying to match the model that Lobaczewski taught, in regard of the ponerization process, and leading to a pathocracy.
Basically, from what I have in mind, it starts with an ideology of some sort; such pool attracts deviants, the movement grows, we see the progressive discarding of the original guys, to finally spectate hard core psychos in charge of the whole. They would keep the original ideology's name.
But here it is: in the case of Zionism, is this model applicable? I know that Lobaczewski has room for variations of the models leading to a pathocracy. Somehow, I see Zionism as quite psychopathological enough in it's basics. This hint at a fundational presence of psychopaths.
I am asking the question to understand how I should consider today's Zionists (specifically): are those actually the hard psychos (and so there may have been "sincere Zionists" at the start)? It has been a while that those Zionists are around, so their "ideology" *should* logically have been undergoing a basic ponerization process, since the time. It's too damaging for seeing zero evolution towards psychopathy. And so, I would like to know if I have to consider Zionism as a "naïve ideology" - or if things differ. Please.
In the case of Hitler, the same question comes to my mind. Hitler, it seems, came by and remained until the end - well - he remained the guy from the start to the end, and in the end, he was segregating Jews and was very damaging. There was quite a macro scale. How to adapt Lobaczewski's model, in this case? I don't see "some guy becoming discarded along the process", and if we were to study things around an ideology - we see Hitler's ideas as being consistent from the start to the end. There is no change of power, somehow.
I am curious if we should, as well, label Hitler's peak as "pathocratic". I believe so but I am not sure.
Thank you in advance for any help on the topic!
