I've often heard this number thrown around the forums here for the number of psychopaths in the general population.
I was wondering if anyone here knew where that specific number came from?
I checked the Wikipedia article and it offered two sources that said 1 percent (Neumann, Craig S.; Hare, Robert D. (2008). "Psychopathic traits in a large community sample: Links to violence, alcohol use, and intelligence". Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology 76 (5): 893–9) or 0.6 percent (Coid J, Yang M, Ullrich S, Roberts A, Hare RD (2009). "Prevalence and correlates of psychopathic traits in the household population of Great Britain". International Journal of Law and Psychiatry 32 (2): 65–73).
Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychopathy#Epidemiology
I was wondering if anyone here knew where that specific number came from?
I checked the Wikipedia article and it offered two sources that said 1 percent (Neumann, Craig S.; Hare, Robert D. (2008). "Psychopathic traits in a large community sample: Links to violence, alcohol use, and intelligence". Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology 76 (5): 893–9) or 0.6 percent (Coid J, Yang M, Ullrich S, Roberts A, Hare RD (2009). "Prevalence and correlates of psychopathic traits in the household population of Great Britain". International Journal of Law and Psychiatry 32 (2): 65–73).
Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychopathy#Epidemiology