Atomic Model

Shijing said:
But neither protons nor electrons can become neutrons -- they are discrete entities.

Free neutrons (not in an atom's nucleus) though do decay into protons and electrons.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beta_decay

In β− decay, the weak interaction converts a neutron (n) into a proton (p) while emitting an electron (e−) and an electron antineutrino (νe).

That doesn't mean the neutron is made of a proton and electron, it just has enough mass and a neutral charge that lets it rearrange into a proton and electron (and a massless neutral antineutrino). Protons and Neutrons are made of quarks and an electron is just an electron.
 
waasekom,

Thank you for that question. In a way it is crucial to understanding of an atom. The fact is we do not know what happens inside an atom - in order to study it, we have to (in effect) destroy it. As I recall reading about the discovery of subatomic particles, the research really got going by studying radiation from uranium, which is naturally "radioactive" - it decays, emitting particles. Electrons were discovered prior to that research, when it was found a beam of "cathode rays" bends in a magnetic field: so it cannot be light, it must have mass, so the understanding was that cathode rays were particles. And they called them electrons. The particles radiated from uranium were much more energetic than electrons. They would put a sensitive screen (a "scintillation detector" or some such name) in front of the uranium source and count (with their eyeballs) flashes of light produced when a particle struck the nucleus of an atom in the scintillation screen. These high-energy particles were protons. But there were other particles, electrically neutral, and even more energetic, that were also eventually discovered (in the 1930's as I recall). That is my hazy recollection at the moment. The point is that everything discovered about these particles is the result of a collision. Nowadays the collisions are produced in high energy colliders such as at Fermilab or CERN.

So no one knows what is inside an atom in its system state. I believe it is simply a system of a series of rotating shells! And in light elements (with few shells) the elementary atom is electrically neutral. In heavy elements which are less stable due to their large number of shells, neutrons are continually emitted and the element is transformed into a different and more stable element (i.e., natural alchemy!). So these heavy elements must be born under terrific pressure (in stars). But again, all we know is that particles are emitted. How this happens, no one knows. But remember, the elements are electrically neutral. It is entirely possible (and I believe it is the case) that within an atom there is no "electric charge" (i.e. the nucleus and electrons exist harmonically, exchanging energy from the external/internal fields (external to the electron shell and internal to the proton shell) and in this way maintaining themselves in harmony with the fields. Only when they are separated from their system state do they exhibit electric properties. Then in the system of shells in the nucleus, who is to say what is a proton and what is a neutron? It is only when a particle emerges that we classify it. And the classification scheme developed by physicists, in order to agree with experimental evidence, is that for example a proton is made of three quarks, each with a fractional electric charge either positive or negative: neutron one up quark (2/3 positive charge), two down quarks (each 1/3 negative charge = 2/3 negative charge) being neutral; proton two up quarks (totalling 4/3 positive charge), one down quark (1/3 negative charge) giving 1 positive charge. This is a model. It is nothing but a model. It does not necessarily correspond to physical reality. It is invented for the purpose of agreeing with experimental evidence. And the experiment in question is a high energy collision. The model is of course nowadays so complex as to be not understandable by anyone outside the high energy collision business. It is not even used by nuclear scientists, who operate on a shell model! So in my view, whether "neutrons" exist inside an atom is an open question, and so is the question of whether quarks exist. But such is the power of the school of physics that the model is accepted virtually as truth.

This view of mine may also show where I stand on the discussion of electron/proton/neutron/quark of Shijing and Bluelamp.

Bluelamp,

I am not sure what you mean about the "eV" versus the "J" use of Planck's constant h. "h" is in units of J*S: joule-seconds. It can be used two different ways. The elementary charge q is in units of C: coulombs. A coulomb can be written in units of A*S: ampere-seconds. So q/h is A*S / J*S = A/J, i.e. amperes per joule. The joule is the unit of energy; the ampere is the unit of electric current. In the Josephson constant, "amperes per joule" becomes "hertz per volt" - by the relation that I noted above, q/h = f/v (and vq = hf = E). And I believe the vq is the fundamental, since it characterizes the material body, while hf characterizes the radiation.
 
So it could be entirely 'possible' that the neutrality of an atom is from the phasing in or out of electrons, and their 'relationship' with the protonic energy contained with the nucleus?

I asked because for example a man and a women get together in a union, which then produces the wonderment of a child, which could be the result of the two energies colliding, which creates neutrality between seemingly chaotic 'relationships'.
 
Bluelamp said:
Shijing said:
But neither protons nor electrons can become neutrons -- they are discrete entities.

Free neutrons (not in an atom's nucleus) though do decay into protons and electrons.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Beta_decay

Thanks for the correction, Bluelamp -- I just learned something new :)
 
David George said:
I am not sure what you mean about the "eV" versus the "J" use of Planck's constant h. "h" is in units of J*S: joule-seconds. It can be used two different ways. The elementary charge q is in units of C: coulombs. A coulomb can be written in units of A*S: ampere-seconds. So q/h is A*S / J*S = A/J, i.e. amperes per joule. The joule is the unit of energy; the ampere is the unit of electric current. In the Josephson constant, "amperes per joule" becomes "hertz per volt" - by the relation that I noted above, q/h = f/v (and vq = hf = E). And I believe the vq is the fundamental, since it characterizes the material body, while hf characterizes the radiation.
When you used E=mc^2, your m was in electron volts, so I'm just saying that comparing that to an h that is in joules might not be looked at kindly on the physics forum since there is a different h that uses electron volts instead of joules. The h for J is q times the h for eV so perhaps you could kind of have a new constant hertz per electron volt.

The model I like by the way isn't mainstream either, it doesn't have point particles, the particles have Compton radii.
 
waasekom,

Once again I think you are close to something. In this scenario, the electron and proton are offspring of a single "parent", the neutron. When they are separated they have an irresistible attraction for each other. When they are together in a system, they are in harmony: they fit together. As the universe evolves, gravitational attraction draws such systems together (and then forces them apart into plasma, or charged "ions" looking for mates). Out of a chaotic process, all kinds of structures emerge, such as molecules, i.e. atoms bound to each other with various kinds of bonds but mainly due to sharing of outer shells (i.e. electrons). There is a family structure involved, and any stable structure is harmonic: it fits (virtually by definition). But change is chaotic; and in the universe, change is constant. But yet again, the universe inexorably creates more complex families, molecules join together to create new molecules, and eventually structures such as proteins; and then a recognizable form of consciousness, a two-way sensing system, emerges; and eventually living cells, and families of cells like ourselves. It is a miracle, and it forces us to consider a harmonic principle behind all this growth. Then there may be a natural moral principle, found in that (unrecognized) harmonic principle.


Bluelamp,

I am mystified by your statement, "The h for J is q times the h for eV. . ." As I said above, and I believe it is the accepted terminology, the physical units that make up Planck's constant h are joule-seconds, J*S. (I think there was a big kafuffle when he published this constant - according to what I read, "h" can interpreted to mean momentum multiplied by distance or energy multiplied by time. But its physical units are J*S.) Then in the equation E = hf, the physical unit for E is the joule, J -- just as it is in the equation E = mc^2. And you can also break down the joule further: its units are "kilograms multiplied by meters squared divided by seconds squared", so J = kg*m^2/s^2. That works fine for E = mc^2. When you look at E = hf, you get "kilograms, multiplied by meters squared, multiplied by seconds, divided by seconds squared, multiplied by number of cycles, divided by seconds." But somehow the physicists agree: the E in both cases is a joule, J, which is in dealing with electromotive force is termed the "coulomb-volt", so that J = C*V. And that breaks down to J = A*S*V. It seems the classical physicists have this all pretty well down, but when Planck's constant comes up, it gets confusing. But it works, and that counts. Remember that Feynman said of quantum mechanics, "No one understands it." And in that vein, I do not understand what your statement I quoted above means. Maybe you could write it out as an equation.

You mentioned that in your preferred model, the particles have the Compton radius. I believe that is the classical electron radius, also (according to Wikipedia) called the Lorentz radius. The three radii, being the Bohr radius, the Compton or classical electron radius, and the R(e) in this model, are related by alpha, the fine structure constant (as I showed in one of the posts above). So something is going on. And as I (eventually) carry on with this model, alpha becomes quite important.

With regard to mc^2, as I read what I wrote in the post that included the mc^2 terms, I see that it is somewhat confusing. However, all the equations are accurate; what they represent, in terms of the physical quantities understood by physicists, is not necessarily clear, since sometimes the physical units that emerge when the terms are manipulated do not make sense - to anyone, and especially the unit known as an "electronvolt". It is not my term. I stated in that post that the value, i.e. the number, for the "m" term that emerges when physicists equate m = hf/c^2, is identical to the number which in my model is simply a "volt". But the "m" in that equation is conventionally called "mass-energy", and strictly it is accompanied by the acknowledgement that it is an "electronvolt / c^2". If anyone should be confused, it is those who try to work with "electronvolt mass-energy". As I said, in Einstein's equation, "m" is rest mass or inertial mass, in kilograms.

In my model, there is no "m". As I said, the "m" is inertial mass according to Einstein, and I believe the inertia is due to the external field pressure, or a net physical motion of space towards the body, which tends to keep the (spherical) electron or proton in one place! In other words, this model is not trying to do away with general relativity. I even think it is kind of foolish to seek a "quantum gravity" theory. They seek that theory because according to their Big Bang idea, GR breaks down! And Big Bang cosmology and high energy physics are joined at the hip -- they justify each other.

(Now this morphs into another post.) I make use of the equation mc^2 = hf, where "m" is the rest mass, in kilograms, in the same way Einstein used it. But I am not interested in the "m", I am interested in the "f" - the frequency of a massless wave (which in this model, instead of moving linearly, rotates). The physicists are interested in that "electronvolt/c^2", i.e. that wierd "mass-energy", because they use it in their work. I don't think they know what it is - "mass" is supposed to indicate some kind of "stuff", but there is no "stuff" in their models, only particles and fields! (Which is why they seek the Higgs field, which is a Big Bang phenomenon.) I accept that there is a massive body involved: it has inertial mass, which has been measured, in kilograms. It represents a form of energy E. A massless wave packet represents the same form of energy E. It is momentum-energy, the energy of both a moving body and a massless wave packet. In the equation E = mc^2, the E is the idealized momentum-energy of a moving body that is at rest relative to the observer (i.e. in the inertial frame according to SR)! I translate that E = mc^2 "rest energy" into the E = hf form, but the form is of a massless rotating electromagnetic wave packet with a spherical shape, that is at rest relative to an observer (i.e. in the inertial frame). (In other words, instead of a wave packet moving linearly through space at c, the wave packet rotates at c.) This way, I find a rotational frequency f that corresponds to a whole wave (peak to peak) moving linearly, but in this case representing a complete rotation. Since this is an electric current, it is a changing electric field, so it also has a changing magnetic field. So I think it is legitimate to model it as an electromagnetic wave.

And when you apply the (superconducting current) Josephson constant to it, it fits! You have the frequency and the volts, the current and the "h" quantity as work done per rotation. The Josephson constant is the real breakthrough here, it points to current arising from energy, i.e. amperes per joule re-interpreted as frequency per volt. So the energy of the field (arising from two directions, external and internal, responsible for the factor of 2) produces a current. The current's own potential energy is described by the volt. That is, the current (a very tiny current) contains a huge potential per (tiny) unit of current (and hence a tiny energy, but don't stop the rotation or it will explode); but this potential is in turn created by the energy of the field dissipated in maintaining the current. So the field energy is constantly transformed into the potential of the current.

When you multiply the proton potential by the electron potential, you are imitating the action of the field that produces each shell's potential: the intermediate field between the electron and proton has an external component (external to the proton) and an internal component (internal to the electron), just as there is a field external to the electron and internal to the proton. Instead of multiplying the internal and external field energies that create the potential of a single shell by the "volts-to-frequency converter" (q/h from each side, totalling 2 q/h) to find the frequency of the current, you are multiplying the two current potentials to find the converter!

I believe the field is completely used up in doing its work. The question is, how much energy is used to maintain the current at its natural frequency? In other words, what is the energy of the field? Is it the potential multiplied by the current flowing for one second (i.e., J = C*V)? Or is it the potential multiplied by the current flowing for one cycle? In this model of a powered universe, there is not a finite quantity of energy; the operative term is power, i.e. watts. (Here I am speculating beyond what I have done so far.)

It is possible to find the current per cycle: it is simply q/f, which is 1.602 176 53 e-19 / 1.232 832 504 e20 = 1.299589786 e-39 amps per cycle. Multiply by v = 509 858.5241 volts and you get the numerical value of Planck's constant, the work done to rotate the electron for one cycle, 6.626 0693 e-34. But what are the units here? The operation is "volts multiplied by amperes" and the answer is in time units of one cycle. The cycle takes 8.111401969 e-21 seconds. So to find J = C*V = A*S*V, we multiply 6.626 0693 e-34 by 8.111401969 e-21 and get 5.374671156 e-54 joules as the energy used to rotate the electron one rotation. The same operation for the proton yields 2.889128636 e-57 joules as the energy used to rotate the proton one rotation.

However, the proton rotates "r" times as quickly as the electron, and it has a smaller current, but a correspondingly larger potential. And in terms of surface area, it is r^2 smaller than the electron. If we take the current of one rotation for each body as its constantly or permanently existing current, we have simply its constant current in amperes.

Volts multiplied by amperes equals watts (joules per second), and we have a work done per second that is equal for each body, i.e. 2.889 128 636 e-57 x 948 494 251.2 = 2.740 321 902 e-48 watts for the proton, and the same for the electron. And, by this method, the same for every material body.This then is the actual power, second by second for eternity, of the powered universe, dissipated by the current of each body. I do not know how this would be converted into some quantity of power per cubic meter of space, since it is applied at a surface, not in a volume.

And where does this power come from? It comes from the future (that's God). It can't be located in physical reality, but it can't be eliminated: in a sense, the future is virtual reality (for us creatures). We know it's coming, we can't stop it, but neither can we grasp it in physical reality. Can we go there otherwise? That is the big question in my mind.
 
From http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck%27s_constant

6.62606896(33)×10−34 J·s
4.13566733(10)×10−15 eV·s
6.62606896(33)×10−27 erg·s

and

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_volt

In physics, the electron volt (symbol eV; also written electronvolt[1][2]) is a unit of energy equal to approximately 1.602×10−19 J. By definition, it is equal to the amount of kinetic energy gained by a single unbound electron when it accelerates through an electric potential difference of one volt. Thus it is 1 volt (1 joule per coulomb) multiplied by the electron charge (1 e, or 1.60217653(14)×10−19 C). Therefore, one electron volt is equal to 1.60217653(14)×10−19 J.

Just like the speed of light constant is different if you use feet per second instead of meters per second, the Planck constant is different if you use electronvolts or ergs rather than joules. Since your V(e) and V(p) were conventionally electronvolts/c^2, conventionally one might want you to use the Planck constant for electronvolts not joules.

The Compton and Classical radii kind of pivot around the Planck length thus for an electron in round numbers, the Classical radius would be 10-55 cm and the Compton radius would be 10-11 cm (the Planck length being 10-33 cm).
 
David George said:
I am mystified by your statement, "The h for J is q times the h for eV. . ." As I said above, and I believe it is the accepted terminology, the physical units that make up Planck's constant h are joule-seconds, J*S.

1 eV = 1.6x10^-19 J, so you can convert h J*s to h eV*s. Then the constant has a different numerical value.
 
David George said:
We find, first, that the ratio of rotational frequency to "force" or "potential" is equivalent to the ratio of q to h. So we can assign a potential/force and a frequency to each rotating sphere as follows (with electron (e) or proton (p) in brackets):

f (e) / v (e) = f (p) / v (p) = q / h

In order to find a frequency, and hence a potential/force, we can refer to the known quantities by converting between the Einstein and Planck equations, E = mc^2 = h * f. We find values for the proton and electron as follows:

f (e) = 1.235 589 912 e20 rotations per second
f (p) = 2.268 731 717 e23 rotations per second
v (e) = 510 998.8962 volts
v (p) = 938 271 988.2 volts

These values of v (e) and v (p) are identical to the mass-energy values of the conventional treatment, but here the units are not "electronvolts/c^2" but simply volts. What this property actually is may not be identifiable in terms of volts, but it represents the same phenomenon represented by the Josephson constant K: in other words, a "voltage" of the electron or proton, combined with the elementary charge q, represents the same energy as a "frequency" of each body combined with Planck's constant h. They are two faces of the same phenomenon in the same way that, according to the Josephson constant, voltage produces frequency and vice versa. The significance of this relation of voltage to frequency may appear when we find (using the values above) that:

v (e) * v (p) = 4.794 559 503 e14
K (2 q / h) = 4.835 978 791 e14

There is a "factor" difference here of 1.00863881. As we proceed we will find, if not a complete explanation, a calculation that eliminates this difference. For the time being it must be remembered that the values provided by current information on the mass of the proton and electron are found by measuring free particles, not system particles. But here we are dealing with the bodies in their system state.

M(e) = 9.10938x10^-31 kg
c = 2.99792x10^8 m/s
h = 6.62607x10^-34 J*s <--- [(kg*m^2)/s]
q = 1.60218^-19 C <--- [J/V]

f(e) = mc^2/h = ((9.10938x10^-31)(8.98752x10^16))/(6.62607x10^-34) = 1.23559x10^20 (1/s)

V(e) = [h*f(e)]/q = [(6.62607x10^-34)(1.23559x10^20)]/(1.60218*10^-19) = 510998 (V/s)

Bluelamp said:
From http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck%27s_constant

6.62606896(33)×10−34 J·s
4.13566733(10)×10−15 eV·s
6.62606896(33)×10−27 erg·s

and

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_volt

In physics, the electron volt (symbol eV; also written electronvolt[1][2]) is a unit of energy equal to approximately 1.602×10−19 J. By definition, it is equal to the amount of kinetic energy gained by a single unbound electron when it accelerates through an electric potential difference of one volt. Thus it is 1 volt (1 joule per coulomb) multiplied by the electron charge (1 e, or 1.60217653(14)×10−19 C). Therefore, one electron volt is equal to 1.60217653(14)×10−19 J.

Just like the speed of light constant is different if you use feet per second instead of meters per second, the Planck constant is different if you use electronvolts or ergs rather than joules. Since your V(e) and V(p) were conventionally electronvolts/c^2, conventionally one might want you to use the Planck constant for electronvolts not joules.

The Compton and Classical radii kind of pivot around the Planck length thus for an electron in round numbers, the Classical radius would be 10-55 cm and the Compton radius would be 10-11 cm (the Planck length being 10-33 cm).

I'm confused about what you mean as well Bluelamp. I did the calculations above using the provided formulas and ended up with units of Volts per second. I'm not sure but I think David George was pointing out that while the values are equal to the conventional values of the electron and proton masses in units of eV/c^2, in this treatment of the values, the units are different. I'm still not exactly sure though, as I got units of V/s and in the bolded part of the quote D.G. says the units are simply volts.
 
Ask_a_debt, you have pointed to it: the numbers are the same, but the units are not! I will try to make clear what I didn't succeed in doing the first time. When I started out, I modelled the electron as a current: a sphere of rotating space. Since the electron is a charged particle with a charge in q coulombs, i.e. 1.602 etc. amperes flowing for one second, I decided to use amperes as the current. All I knew at that time was:

V*A = W

and I read that there is a "potential difference of one volt across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power, and can equally be represented as one joule of energy per coulomb of charge moved (V = J/C = J/A*S)". I didn't know what all this meant, but:

J = C*V = A*S*V = W*S = Energy (whatever that really is).

The current is a massless superconducting current and since it is rotating, it has some frequency of rotation; and since it is a changing "electric field" of some kind, it is accompanied by a changing magnetic field of some kind, so it is reasonable to treat it as a wave. Its speed is the speed of light, so it rotates at c just as a wave moves at c. One complete rotation is the same as one complete wave. Planck gives the E of a wave as h*f. Aha! A frequency! With a number of cycles per second, at the speed of light per second, it is possible to find the time taken for one complete rotation. And with a number of amperes of current flowing during that one second and totalling q coulombs, it is possible to find the current in a single rotation.

q = C = A*S

A*S*V = V*q = J = Energy = hf

Hence (using a small v instead of a large V) vq = hf!

Then

f/v = q/h

Using the known "rest mass" value, in kilograms, c^2, and h, it is possible to find f. Given f, q and h, it is possible to find v in volts, which according to V*A = W is a "potential difference across a conductor". But here the potential difference is nowhere to be seen in the current - it just goes round and round forever. But in this model, the W is dissipated by the current: W powers the current, and in the time space of one second it totals J = Energy. Anyway, there are now values for v, f, h and q.

Enter the Josephson constant 2q/h, and the discovery that v(e) x v(p) = approx. 2q/h, so close that it is reasonable that in a system state, v(e) x v(p) = exactly 2q/h (reasoning that the difference arises when the proton and electron are measured in their "free" state as opposed to their "bound" or system state). And the rest of my first post follows from there.

Now I am trying to figure how you (Ask_a_debt) come up with v/s. I know, from trying to figure out how units PER second and units FOR ONE second relate, that there is a great risk of confusion (at least for me). For example, a frequency is given in cycles (or rotations) PER second, while a current of electric charge totalling one coulomb is given in amperes FOR ONE second. In order to relate them (to find a current per rotation), you have to say that there are a certain number of rotations IN THE TIME SPACE OF one second, and there are a certain number of amperes that flow IN THE TIME SPACE OF one second, so you can figure out the current per rotation. If you just divide q amperes FOR one second by f cycles PER second, you get A*S / (Cycles/S) = A*S*S / Cycles, which doesn't make sense. So the time unit is confusing.

Anyway, I believe the current per rotation is the "fundamental" current, because it is the same number that just keeps going round and round, constantly dissipating the watts of power, and producing this potential V (or v) which I believe must be somehow contained in the circuit. But whichever place it is assigned to, it is not eV/c^2, and as "v", it corresponds exactly to the prescription of the Josephson constant, interpreted as "hertz per volt" (i.e. rotations per second per volt), and inversely to the magnetic flux quantum interpreted as "volts per hertz". These quantities somehow manage to relate frequency to potential in macro scales, and I believe in the proton-electron system they reflect the "mutual reinforcement" (by means of magnetic flux quantum exchange) that the proton and electron provide to each other via the intermediate field between them. It makes sense to me, particularly since to get the exact value of these constants requires a contribution from two sides of each rotating sphere. And it also works later on when you calculate magnetic moment. It is exact (according to the way I do it)! It does not use the spin-g factor. I hope to describe it clearly. Anyway, I hope the confusion between eV/c^2 and v is disappearing.
 
Sorry -- I'm not yelling out the caps in the post above -- it was just the quickest way to compare the words. I should have italicized.
 
OK I think I got it. So the units problem is not from going away from the usual "electron volt" usage, you just got those values differently via dividing by q. So you are kind of just left with your V(e)*V(p) being volts squared and your Josephson constant being Hz per volt. That's still a units problem people might not like though.
 
Quoting Bluelamp: "So you are kind of just left with your V(e)*V(p) being volts squared and your Josephson constant being Hz per volt. That's still a units problem people might not like though."

Consider that the Josephson constant, 2q/h, gives "hertz per volt". Actually amperes per joule, but it does not matter, because the Josephson constant is like a machine for converting volts into hertz. You put volts in and get hertz out:

v x 2q/h = hertz

V * C / J = hertz

V * C = J

J / J = 1 = hertz

That doesn't seem to make much sense from the point of view of units. But the man who found the formula received the Nobel prize. From Wikipedia: "The Josephson effect is very widely used to provide a standard for high precision measurements of potential difference, which (since 1990) have been related to a fixed, "conventional" value of the Josephson constant, denoted KJ–90." So if I were an examiner presented with a model in which v(e) x v(p) = 2q/h, I would be more interested in what is going on than in the units. There may be people who have a problem with the units, but I am more interested in what is going on.
 
Bluelamp,

I must eat my words, your comment is right on. I have it from an unimpeachable authority, whose first reaction was that there appears to be a "dimensional problem"! Therefore I admit I should be more careful before I write. I have been working on the problem -- it was not on my radar, and it is going in strange directions, so it may be awhile before I say any more.
 
Here is an explanation for the apparent units conflict noted above. The following is consistent with the rules of physics as I understand them:

1. When one weber of magnetic flux is reduced to zero at a uniform rate in a time of one second, an electromotive force of one volt is induced in the electric current loop linked by the magnetic flux. Wb = V s

2. When one volt of electromotive force moves one ampere of current in a time of one second, one watt of power is dissipated and one joule of work is done. V = W / A ; J = W * s

3. There is a potential difference of one volt when one ampere of current dissipates one watt of power. When one ampere of current flows for one second, one coulomb of electric charge is moved. C = A * s

4. When a magnetic flux of one weber linking an electric current loop is reduced to zero at a uniform rate of one second, an electromotive force of one volt moves one coulomb of charge; one ampere of current flows for one second; one watt of power is dissipated; and one joule of work is done. V = J / C = W / A

In this model, the proton and electron exchange magnetic flux quanta, and in this way produce electromotive force in each other. The ratio of their (rotational) frequency per volt is equal to the ratio of amperes per joule (q / h). So

f / v = q / h = C / J *s = A * s / J * s = A / J

A "units" problem appears when it is found that v(e) * v(p) = 2 q / h. In terms of units, it appears that V = A / J. On its face this appears to conflict with the equation V = J / C. But the units are not the same.

When v(e) * v(p) = 2 q / h, V = A / J

Then W / A = A / J

W = J / s

J / A * s = A / J

The number of joules of work done per ampere of current flowing per second is equal to the number of amperes of current flowing per joule of work done.

If one joule of work is done per ampere of current per second, and one ampere of current flows for one second, then one ampere of current flows per joule of work done.

So I believe it is correct to say that v(e) * v(p) = 2 q / h.
 
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