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I don't get all of this financial juggling Bear Stearns/JPMorgan.
Why would the Central bank (Federal Reserve?) fund 30 billion of Bear Stearns assets if the company is not worth that much? Then after the Fed makes such a move the company sells for $236.2 million? It seems to me that JPMorgan just bought 30 billion Dollars in guaranteed Federal funding plus the assets of Bear Stearns for $236.2 million.
"The central bank has agreed to fund up to $30 billion of Bear Stearns' less liquid assets." http://www.sott.net/articles/show/151228-JPMorgan-to-buy-Bear-for-2-a-share
I made a comment on and article here: http://www.sott.net/articles/show/151235-Asian-stocks-tumble-on-Bear-Stearns-news but I still don't get it. Comment:
"JPM aka JPMorgan who has roughly 124.11 billion dollars {dead-Link} in assets buys out a competitor for $236.2 million. What they bought for that price is Bear Stearns {Dead-Link} which has 3.54 billion in *market capitalization.
Going back in time to a recent oil tycoon's retirement which equaled close to or over 200 million (can't find specific article), who's getting robbed here? If I have 3.54 billion in *market capitalization, why would I sell out for $236.2 million, it makes not a shred of sense.
Not that I understand all of this but it seems like huge profiteering is going on."
(*Edited some of my comment quote. Had Dollar and changed it to Market Capitalization)
JPM aka JPMorgan who has roughly 136.78 billion in market capitalization, buys out a competitor for $236.2 million. What they bought for that price is Bear Stearns a 3.54 billion dollar company.
Going back in time to a recent oil tycoon's retirement which equaled close to or over 200 million (can't find specific article), who's getting robbed here? If I have 3.54 billion in market capitalization (<--last night, now at 578.64Million), why would I sell out for $236.2 million, it makes not a shred of sense.
Not that I understand all of this but it seems like huge profiteering is going on.
http://moneycentral.msn.com/investor/home.asp
get quote JPM = JPMorgan BSC = Bear Stearns
Apologies if all of this is confusing (it is for me!). What it looks like to me is what I said initially.
"Why would the Central bank (Federal Reserve?) fund 30 billion of Bear Stearns assets if the company is not worth that much? Then after the Fed makes such a move the company sells for $236.2 million? It seems to me that JPMorgan just bought 30 billion Dollars in guaranteed Federal funding plus the assets of Bear Stearns for $236.2 million."
Doesn't that help depreciate the value of the dollar? Isn't that less than a 1/3 of the current value of Bear Stearn stock? Isn't JPMorgan just funding itself by getting $30billion in Liquid assets based on the Fed's $30billion Stimulus into Bear Stearns?
Why would the Central bank (Federal Reserve?) fund 30 billion of Bear Stearns assets if the company is not worth that much? Then after the Fed makes such a move the company sells for $236.2 million? It seems to me that JPMorgan just bought 30 billion Dollars in guaranteed Federal funding plus the assets of Bear Stearns for $236.2 million.
"The central bank has agreed to fund up to $30 billion of Bear Stearns' less liquid assets." http://www.sott.net/articles/show/151228-JPMorgan-to-buy-Bear-for-2-a-share
I made a comment on and article here: http://www.sott.net/articles/show/151235-Asian-stocks-tumble-on-Bear-Stearns-news but I still don't get it. Comment:
"JPM aka JPMorgan who has roughly 124.11 billion dollars {dead-Link} in assets buys out a competitor for $236.2 million. What they bought for that price is Bear Stearns {Dead-Link} which has 3.54 billion in *market capitalization.
Going back in time to a recent oil tycoon's retirement which equaled close to or over 200 million (can't find specific article), who's getting robbed here? If I have 3.54 billion in *market capitalization, why would I sell out for $236.2 million, it makes not a shred of sense.
Not that I understand all of this but it seems like huge profiteering is going on."
(*Edited some of my comment quote. Had Dollar and changed it to Market Capitalization)
JPM aka JPMorgan who has roughly 136.78 billion in market capitalization, buys out a competitor for $236.2 million. What they bought for that price is Bear Stearns a 3.54 billion dollar company.
Going back in time to a recent oil tycoon's retirement which equaled close to or over 200 million (can't find specific article), who's getting robbed here? If I have 3.54 billion in market capitalization (<--last night, now at 578.64Million), why would I sell out for $236.2 million, it makes not a shred of sense.
Not that I understand all of this but it seems like huge profiteering is going on.
http://moneycentral.msn.com/investor/home.asp
get quote JPM = JPMorgan BSC = Bear Stearns
Apologies if all of this is confusing (it is for me!). What it looks like to me is what I said initially.
"Why would the Central bank (Federal Reserve?) fund 30 billion of Bear Stearns assets if the company is not worth that much? Then after the Fed makes such a move the company sells for $236.2 million? It seems to me that JPMorgan just bought 30 billion Dollars in guaranteed Federal funding plus the assets of Bear Stearns for $236.2 million."
Doesn't that help depreciate the value of the dollar? Isn't that less than a 1/3 of the current value of Bear Stearn stock? Isn't JPMorgan just funding itself by getting $30billion in Liquid assets based on the Fed's $30billion Stimulus into Bear Stearns?